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Prove funen1cnv (#3566)
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BTernaryTau authored Oct 9, 2023
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Expand Up @@ -501691,6 +501691,21 @@ have become an indirect lemma of the theorem in question (i.e. a lemma
wf frn hashss 3adant1 eqbrtrd ) CDFZBEFZABCGZHAIJZCKZIJZBIJZLUEUGUHUJMUFABC
DNOUFUGUJUKLPZUEUGUFABCTZULABCQUMUFUIBRULABCUABUIEUBSSUCUD $.

${
$d F p $. $d x y p $.
$( If a function is equinumerous to ordinal 1, then its converse is also a
function. (Contributed by BTernaryTau, 8-Oct-2023.) $)
funen1cnv $p |- ( ( Fun F /\ F ~~ 1o ) -> Fun `' F ) $=
( vp vx vy c1o cen wfun ccnv cv csn wceq wex wi wal sylancl syl wa funeqd
cnveq biimpar wbr en1 cop wrel wcel funrel vsnid elrel sneq funcnvsn gen2
2eximi 19.29r2 exlimivv ax-gen 19.29r funeq imbi12d exlimiv mpan2 impcom
sylbi ) AEFUAZAGZAHZGZVCABIZJZKZBLZVDVFMZBAUBVJVHGZVHHZGZMZBNZVKVOBVLVHCI
ZDIZUCZJZKZDLCLZVTHZGZDNCNZVNVLVGVSKZDLCLZWBVLVHUDVGVHUEWGVHUFBUGCDVGVHUH
OWFWACDVGVSUIULPWDCDVQVRUJUKWBWEQWAWDQZDLCLVNWAWDCDUMWHVNCDWAVNWDWAVMWCVH
VTSRTUNPOUOVJVPQVIVOQZBLVKVIVOBUPWIVKBVIVKVOVIVDVLVFVNAVHUQVIVEVMAVHSRURT
USPUTVBVA $.
$}

$( If a function restricted to a class is one-to-one, then for any two
elements of the class, the values of the function at those elements are
equal only if the two elements are the same element. (Contributed by
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